[B-Greek] IOUDAIOS
reznik1 at juno.com
reznik1 at juno.com
Thu Jan 29 13:25:23 EST 2004
It seems to me that in John's Gospel IOUDAIOS often really means Judean and not Jew. Here is a good example:
Jhn 7:1 After these things Jesus walked in Galilee; for He did not want to walk in Judea, because the Jews* sought to kill Him.
NKJV Copyright 1982 Thomas Nelson
Here we see a contrast between Judeans (who are in Judea) and Galileans. Jews lived in both Judea and Galilee, but Judeans lived in Judea. Here is another example:
Jhn 11:7 Then after this He said to the disciples, "Let us go to Judea again."
Jhn 11:8 The disciples said to Him, "Rabbi, lately the Jews sought to stone You, and are You going there again?"
NKJV Copyright 1982 Thomas Nelson
Here "the Jews" also can mean Judeans, because the Galileans who were around Him at that time were also Jews, but they were not a threat for Him.
In these examples the word shoud definitely mean Judeans from the context. And it is very probable that in many other passages with not so clear context it means the same. After all, John was a Jew himself, and it was he who wrote down Jesus' words that "salvation comes from the Jews". Plus, in John's gospel he shows Jesus' enemies mostly, if not only, in Judea, and he as Galilean himself dislikes proud "spiritual" Judeans. So IOUDAIOI in his Gospel seem to be in contrast not only to so called Christians (who were also Jews) but also to Galileans.
Dmitriy Reznik
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