[B-Greek] QEOS as a proper name?

ann nyland accuratebibles at ozemail.com.au
Wed Jul 28 19:41:27 EDT 2004


Yes, indeed, as I said in a previous post, Jewish Name plus Title is
considered as one of the seven identified double names of the time.
The evidence is clear that titles developed into names, as you say, from the
2nd to the 5th centuries. Second names originally patronymic are not always
genuine patronymics even by the N.T. times. Calderini (esp. 224) (see my
previous post) details the chronological spread of double names. Yet isn't
Tony's question their NT use? There is abundance of evidence from the
documentary sources, a plethora of parallels to the NT use of proper names
which remained standard from a century before to two centuries after.
>From the 1st to the 3rd c, the double names were generally given as
A HO/HE KAI B
A EPIKALOUMENOS B
and elss frequently
A O DIA LOGWN B
A B
A ANQ' HOU B
Numerous texts published in 1976 provide examples of double names.
(An aside - my own suspicion is that the Bible versions transliterating as
"Christ" instead of translating could influence discussion of the title -
could be reading back into the text from translation, as so often happens.)
Ann Nyland


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "James Ernest" <jdemail at charter.net>
To: <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, July 29, 2004 3:13 AM
Subject: RE: [B-Greek] QEOS as a proper name?


> Some suggested reading from the Hurtado tome (Lord Jesus Christ) on titles
> and proper names:
>
> pp. 98-101: In Paul's letters XRISTOS "has clearly become so closely
> associated with Jesus that it functions almost like an alternate name for
> him"; but even for Paul's gentile converts the "royal-messianic"
> significance of the term was never so lost that it functions "merely as
> another name for Jesus."
>
> p. 305: In the Synoptics: "in an important sense of the word, 'the son of
> man' is not a title. That is, it does not designate an office or figure
> previously established and identified by this expression in the speech
> patterns of pre-Christian Jewish circles/traditions.... It functioned ...
> more in the way a name functions.... However, ... unlike proper names (at
> least in some languages such a modern European ones), 'the son of man'
also
> had a semantic meaning, referring to Jesus as 'the' particular human
> being/figure."
>
> pp. 625-627: on nomina sacra (IHSOUS, XRISTOS, QEOS, KYRIOS). For the
> purposes of Tony's question, one might extrapolate from the ms. phenomena
> Hurtado here briefly mentions that for Christians of the second through
> fifth centuries all four of these words came to be treated as (I wouldn't
> say reduced to) proper names.
>
> "Proper name" and "title" may be overlapping categories.
>
> James
>
> --------------------------------
> James D. Ernest, Ph.D., Editor
> Baker Academic
> jernest at BakerAcademic.com
> http://www.BakerAcademic.com
> --------------------------------
>
>
>
> ---
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
> B-Greek mailing list
> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
>




More information about the B-Greek mailing list