[B-Greek] EPI ERGOIS AGAQOIS

Steven Lo Vullo slovullo at mac.com
Mon Jun 7 23:34:52 EDT 2004


On Jun 7, 2004, at 9:11 PM, virgil newkirk wrote:

> Ephesians 2:10 reads:
>
> AUTOU GAR ESMEN POIHMA KTISQENTES EN CRISTWi IHSOU EPI ERGOIS AGAQOIS 
> OIS
> PROHTOIMASEN hO QEOS hINA EN AUTOIS PERIPATHSWMEN
>
> When I looked at this verse in the Greek I was surprised and taken 
> back by
> the use of EPI preceeding ERGOIS AGAQOIS. Virtually all English 
> translations
> represent this phrase as unto or for or even (NIV) as an 
> infinitive.."to do"
> good works. Quite frankly, I said to myself...what's EPI doing there 
> and how
> could anyone translate the preposition EPI as "to do"..or even "unto" 
> ? One
> of which is verbal...the other inferring direction towards.
>
>
> This contemplation led to the following conclusion on my part and that 
> that
> conclusion is demanded by the Greek. Am I mistaken and if you think so
> ..why ?
>
>   ERGOIS AGAQOIS here, is not related to good works that we may or may 
> not
> perform, but, in fact, to the good works accomplished in and by Christ 
> and
> that these good works and their results are the "basis" of our 
> KTISQENTES EN
> CHRISWi IHSOU; EPI ERGOIS AGAQOIS ! I believe this impression is 
> required by
> the Greek because:
>
> EPI+Dative according to BDAG is a marker of presence or occurrence 
> near an
> object or area, at, near--b. with Dative, of immediate proximity at, 
> near,
> or by. 6./ Marker of basis for a state of being, action, or result, 
> on. With
> Dative.

Well, BDAG lists no less than 18 uses of EPI. The selection you have 
proffered above is in fact **not** the section in which BDAG includes 
the use of EPI in Eph 2.10 as an example. That would be section 16, 
where EPI is described as a "marker of object or purpose, with dat. in 
ref. to someth." This usage, it is noted, goes all the way back to 
Homer. Other examples included from the NT besides Eph 2.10 are 1Th 4.7 
and 2 Ti 2.14. This definition fits the context much better, since it 
is clear that it is good works prepared beforehand by God for 
**Christians** to walk in that is in view. This is obvious from the 
relative pronoun hOIS. Additionally, even if we were to entertain your 
suggestion, there would be nothing in the sentence that would clarify 
that it is **Christ's** good works that form the basis of the creation 
in question.

> One other matter that is key in this verse and that everything turns
> on....GAR. Whatever follows is an extension and expansion of what is
> contained in verse 9 at least. Yes ?

No. GAR is a marker of explanation. Paul's comments in v. 10 explain 
why he said what he did in vv. 8-9. There he points out that believers 
are saved by grace through faith, not by works. He then explains why it 
cannot be that we are saved **by** works: It is because we are God's 
**workmanship**, created **for the purpose or with the object** of good 
works.

No English translation always gets it right, but usually when there is 
unanimity or near unanimity among translations, there is good reason 
for it.
============

Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI




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