[B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12

Oetla Simankane yet_yeta at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 21 01:54:02 EDT 2004


In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul uses, DIDASKEIN (present infinitive) instead of DIDAXAI (aorist infinitive). What effect does this have on the meaning of the text. Is it correct, from the above observation, to suggest that Paul did not allow women to be teachers, yet he may have allowed them to engage in the act of teaching.
 
Oetla Simankane
Greek student 
Avondale College

		
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