[B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12

Eddie Mishoe edmishoe at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 21 07:55:22 EDT 2004


> > In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul uses, DIDASKEIN (present
> infinitive) instead of 
> > DIDAXAI (aorist infinitive). What effect does this
> have on the meaning of the 
> > text. Is it correct, from the above observation,
> to suggest that Paul did not 
> > allow women to be teachers, yet he may have
> allowed them to engage in the act 
> > of teaching.

> > 
> 
> Oetla, I'm answering you off-list (with a copy to
> Carlton and Carl in case 
> they deem this worthy of the list) because you seem
> to be asking as much about 
> interpretation as Greek grammar.  What some
> commentators have read into the 
> present tense here is that certain women were
> already teaching in the setting and 
> so Paul is addressing a present problem in the
> church, not simply a potential 
> problem.  (See Gordon Fee for the view that the
> problem is already present 
> via certain women who have abused their positions) 
> This would take the present 
> tense to indicate that they are not "to keep on
> teaching" rather than "start 
> teaching." 

Is it EVER the case where one can say that the use of
the Present tense denotes ceasing an action already in
progress? I thought Boyer and others have demonstrated
that this is not the case as far as grammar goes.


=====
Eddie Mishoe
Pastor


		
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