[B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12
Eddie Mishoe
edmishoe at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 21 07:55:22 EDT 2004
> > In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul uses, DIDASKEIN (present
> infinitive) instead of
> > DIDAXAI (aorist infinitive). What effect does this
> have on the meaning of the
> > text. Is it correct, from the above observation,
> to suggest that Paul did not
> > allow women to be teachers, yet he may have
> allowed them to engage in the act
> > of teaching.
> >
>
> Oetla, I'm answering you off-list (with a copy to
> Carlton and Carl in case
> they deem this worthy of the list) because you seem
> to be asking as much about
> interpretation as Greek grammar. What some
> commentators have read into the
> present tense here is that certain women were
> already teaching in the setting and
> so Paul is addressing a present problem in the
> church, not simply a potential
> problem. (See Gordon Fee for the view that the
> problem is already present
> via certain women who have abused their positions)
> This would take the present
> tense to indicate that they are not "to keep on
> teaching" rather than "start
> teaching."
Is it EVER the case where one can say that the use of
the Present tense denotes ceasing an action already in
progress? I thought Boyer and others have demonstrated
that this is not the case as far as grammar goes.
=====
Eddie Mishoe
Pastor
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