[B-Greek] Why does the Greek New Testament sometimes quote from theLXX and not from the proto-MT whe

Barbara D. Colt babc2 at comcast.net
Thu Mar 11 13:45:29 EST 2004



On 11 Mar 2004 at 12:12, Albert Pietersma wrote:

> in fact is a defense of the  Septuagint against its source text circa
> 130 BCE. The tale reflects vividly that certainly by  that time
> Egyptian Greek-speaking Jewry regarded the Septuagint (i.e. the
> Pentateuch) as a  text with an illustrious genealogy which had become
> an independent entity vis-a-vis its  parent.

If the Greeks of the Diaspora were anything like immigrants in the US 
today, the third generation would have been for the most part unable 
to read the original.  Some of them might have been able to talk 
simple family talk with their grandmothers, but not much more.  
That's why they needed a Greek translation, and they probably 
regarded the Septuagint much as average people in our culture regard 
whatever English translation may be used in their church.  

  Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2 at comcast.net
St John the Evangelist, San Francisco
>From envy, hatred, and malice and all uncharitableness
Good Lord, deliver us.




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