[B-Greek] Why does GNT Hebrews quote from LXX and not proto-MT?
ronpt at comcast.net
ronpt at comcast.net
Wed Mar 17 11:54:10 EST 2004
Actually, there is no evidence that the author of the letter to the Hebrews was, in fact, Jewish. There is some evidence to the contrary, and I personally believe it to be Luke, which would at least partially explain the anonymous approach. This became more of a possibility when I got Bible Works and started checking the words or forms that are common only to Luke, Acts, and Hebrews. I have a list of about three pages if you are interested, plus some interesting quotes from commentators.
Ron Snider
>
>
> On 17 Mar 2004 at 14:44, Philip Engmann wrote:
>
> > Dear B-Greekers,
> >
> > I guess I have had the erroneous idea that since the Greek New
> > Testament writers (being native Hebrews), specifically the Writer to
> > the Hebrews, quoted from the LXX and not from the proto-MT texts, then
> > the LXX was somehow a more preferred or accurate or authentic text, in
> > the writers view, than the proto-MT texts available to the writer at
> > the time.
> >
> > But this theory fails for several reasons which many of you have
> > kindly pointed out (and I quote in some cases);
> >
> >
> > 3. Ancient translations of the New Testament such as
> > the Syriac, usually quote from their translation of the Old Testament
> > rather than the Hebrew. This suggests that it was simply the custom
> > to use the version the readers were most accustomed to.
> >
> Not unlike our our own custom today. What version are you most
> likely to quote? For nigh on 400 years (until about 50 years ago),
> nearly every quotation of the Bible that one met in reading was from
> the King James (and I have to admit that, if I am quoting from
> memory, that's still the version that will naturally come to mind).
>
> Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2 at comcast.net
> St John the Evangelist, San Francisco
> >From envy, hatred, and malice and all uncharitableness
> Good Lord, deliver us.
>
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