[B-Greek] Jn. 8:40

gfsomsel at juno.com gfsomsel at juno.com
Tue Nov 23 12:46:51 EST 2004


On Tue, 23 Nov 2004 12:23:21 -0500 "Minton, Ron" <rminton at bible.edu>
writes:
> I meant: But what is the grammatical term for the nom masc sing prn 
> taking a
> first person verb instead of a third person verb?
> Ron Minton
> 
> -----Original Message-----
> From: gfsomsel at juno.com [mailto:gfsomsel at juno.com] 
> Sent: Tuesday, November 23, 2004 11:21 AM
> Cc: rminton at bible.edu; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn. 8:40
> 
> On Tue, 23 Nov 2004 "Minton, Ron" <rminton at bible.edu> writes:
> > But what is the grammatical term for the nom masc sing prn taking 
> a third 
> > person verb instead of a first person verb?
> > Ron Minton
> > 
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: gfsomsel at juno.com [mailto:gfsomsel at juno.com] 
> > Sent: Tuesday, November 23, 2004 11:01 AM
> > To: rminton at bible.edu
> > Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> > Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn. 8:40
> > 
> > On Tue, 23 Nov 2004 10:48:58 -0500 "Minton, Ron" 
> > <rminton at bible.edu>
> > writes:
> > > What is the Greek construction called in John 8:40 when the 
> > relative 
> > > pronoun hos seems to be the subject of the verb I speak?  It 
> would 
> > seem
> > that a third singular verb should be found, but we find a first 
> > person.
> > > Does anyone have additional examples of this?
> > > 
> > > Prof. Ron Minton
> > > Capital Bible Seminary
> > > 6511 Princess Garden Pkwy
> > > Lanham, MD  20706
> > > W 240-387-1274
> > > C 240-432-8925
> > > H 301-918-1792
> > > 
> > > ---
> > 
> > TEXT: 
> > NUN DE ZHTEITE ME APOKTEINAI ANQRWPON hOS THN ALHQEIAN hUMIN 
> > LELALHKA hHN
> > HKOUSA PARA TOU QEOU . . .
> > 
> > It's a relative clause describing  ANQRWPON which in turn is in
> > apposition to ME which is the object of the inf APOKTEINAI.
> > george
> > gfsomsel
> _______________
>  
> Now I'm confused.  Why would you expect it to be anything other than 
> a 3
> s since ANQRWPON is that to which hOS . .   . LELALHKA refers?  
> 
> BTW:  Greek doesn't have a 3 M.s. finite verb.  I think you've been
> reading Hebrew which does distinguish.
> 
> george
> gfsomsel
______________

OK.  I think I understand now.  I believe that would be called
"anacoluthon" (basically meaning "it does not follow").  

george
gfsomsel



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