[B-Greek] Jn. 8:40

Iver Larsen ialarsen at multitechweb.com
Tue Nov 23 12:44:55 EST 2004


>
> What is the Greek construction called in John 8:40 when the
> relative pronoun
> hos seems to be the subject of the verb I speak?  It would seem
> that a third
> singular verb should be found, but we find a first person.
> Does anyone have additional examples of this?
>
> Prof. Ron Minton

Other examples:

Rom 2:23: hOS EN NOMWi KAUCASAI - you who boast in the law

Confer also several substantive participles in 2:21-2, e.g.:
hO LEGWN MH MOICEUEIN, MOICEUEIS - you who say that one should not commit
adultery, you commit adultery.

Acts 22:4: hOS TAUTHN THN hODON EDIWXA - I who persecuted this way

It looks like the Greek relative hOS, which we tend to equate with "who",
ought to be equated with one of the following: I who - you who - he/she who,
depending on context.

I suppose one could say that the personal pronoun is incorporated within the
relative.

In the Friberg tags, the hOS is marked as -1S or -2S, just like the
participle LEGWN above is marked as -2S. Such markings are derived from
context rather than the word itself.

Iver Larsen




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