[B-Greek] Jn. 8:40
Steven Lo Vullo
themelios at charter.net
Tue Nov 23 19:10:37 EST 2004
On Nov 23, 2004, at 1:40 PM, gfsomsel at juno.com wrote:
> Of course there is no EGW in this passage. Every schoolboy knows,
> however, that the person is contained in the verb in Greek [LELAKHKA --
> "I spoke"]. I think it tends to be a problem with the difference
> between
> the way the Greek in this passage handles it and the way in which we
> would normally handle it in English. In English we would not say "I
> am a
> man who [I] spoke the truth" but rather "I am a man who spoke the
> truth."
> The tendency is to view "who spoke the truth" as 3 s. (whether or not
> that is inherently true though I tend to think that was how we
> construed
> it when I was in school).
George, I think it is (not intentionally) misleading to put the "I" in
brackets in the first sentence, but not similarly bracket an understood
"he" in the second. This would make the second sentence sound every bit
as awkward as the first, wouldn't it? At any rate, this is English, and
I don't think the Greek of John 8.40 is unnatural Greek.
============
Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
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