[B-Greek] Question on John 1:1

Chesster67 at aol.com Chesster67 at aol.com
Wed Nov 24 21:14:01 EST 2004


Dear Chuck,

<<<<1.) Is the translation "the Word was a god" grammatically possible?>>>>

Yes, it is a possibility, but we shall find that the context deems this a very unlikely translation.

<<<2.) Moffatt, Goodspeed, and others have translated this section as "the Word was divine".  Again, is this translation possible?>>>>

Yes, this is possible, but let us be assured that this sense of divinity is unique to God the Creator.

<<<3.) Is there anything in the text that has led most modern translations to prefer "the Word was God" over the translations "the Word was a god" or "the Word was divine"?>>>

Yes, see verse 18.  The context makes it clear for us that THEOS refers to the Divine Essence of the Father.

I hope this may have slightly helped you.  The B-Greekers on the list whould have much more to say on this.

Happy holidays!

-Gabe Chesster





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