[B-Greek] Question on John 1:1
Chesster67 at aol.com
Chesster67 at aol.com
Wed Nov 24 21:14:01 EST 2004
Dear Chuck,
<<<<1.) Is the translation "the Word was a god" grammatically possible?>>>>
Yes, it is a possibility, but we shall find that the context deems this a very unlikely translation.
<<<2.) Moffatt, Goodspeed, and others have translated this section as "the Word was divine". Again, is this translation possible?>>>>
Yes, this is possible, but let us be assured that this sense of divinity is unique to God the Creator.
<<<3.) Is there anything in the text that has led most modern translations to prefer "the Word was God" over the translations "the Word was a god" or "the Word was divine"?>>>
Yes, see verse 18. The context makes it clear for us that THEOS refers to the Divine Essence of the Father.
I hope this may have slightly helped you. The B-Greekers on the list whould have much more to say on this.
Happy holidays!
-Gabe Chesster
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