[B-Greek] Caragounis book
Eric Weiss
papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Wed Nov 24 22:23:39 EST 2004
> Now my understanding is that NA has come over into
> modern Greek from hINA, and NA seems to be diluted
> down to the equivalent of the English "to".
Doesn't hINA + verb sometimes act like the "to" part
of an infinitive, esp. in John's Gospel? I.e., rather
than translate, e.g., HLQEN, hINA EISELQHi EIS THN
SUNAGWGHN as "he left, in order that he might enter
the synagogue," one should translate it as simply "he
left to enter the synagogue." Still a "purpose," but
better translated by the English infinitive. Is that
what you mean by being the equivalent of the English
"to"?
=====
Eric S. Weiss
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