[B-Greek] Mantey source needed
Minton, Ron
rminton at bible.edu
Thu Nov 25 11:54:45 EST 2004
The recent grammatical discussion of THEOS on Jn. 1:1 reminded me of a
letter I have been trying to document for twenty years - since I first
received it. Does anyone know the source of Dr. Mantey's letter on the
grammar of this verse?
Many thanks,
Ron Minton
AN OPEN LETTER BY J.R. MANTEY
A GROSSLY MISLEADING TRANSLATION
John 1:1 which reads "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was
with God and the Word was God," is shockingly mistranslated, "Originally the
Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god," in a New World
Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, published under the auspices
of Jehovah's Witnesses.
Since my name is used and our Manual Grammar of the Greek New
Testament is quoted on page 744 to seek to justify their translation, I am
making this statement.
The translation suggested in our Grammar for the disputed passage
is, "the Word was deity." Moffatt's rendering is "the Word was divine."
Williams' translation is, "the Word was God himself." Each translation
reflects the dominant idea in the Greek. For, whenever an article does not
precede a noun in Greek, that noun can either be considered as emphasizing
the character, nature, essence or quality of a person or thing, as theos
(God) does in John 1:1, or it can be translated in certain contexts as
indefinite, as they have done. But of all the scholars in the world, as far
as we know, none have translated this verse as Jehovah's Witnesses have.
If the Greek article occurred with both Word and God in John 1:1 the
implication would be that they are one and the same person, absolutely
identical. But John affirmed that "the Word was with (the) God" (the
definite article preceding each noun), and in so writing he indicated his
belief that they were distinct and separate personalities. Then John next
stated that the Word was God, i.e., of the same family or essence that
characterizes the Creator. Or, in other words, that both are of the same
nature, and that nature is the highest in existence, namely, divine.
Examples where the noun in the predicate does not have an article,
as in the above verse, are: John 4:24, "God is spirit" (not a spirit; I John
4:16, "God is love" (not a love); and Matthew 13:39, "the reapers are
angels," i.e., they are the type of beings known as angels. In each
instance the noun in the predicate was used to describe some quality or
characteristic of the subject, whether as to nature or type.
The apostle John in the context of the introduction to his gospel is
pulling all the stops out of language to portray not only the deity of
Christ but also His equality with the Father. He states that the Word was
in the beginning, that He was with God, that He was God and that all
creation came into existence through Him and that not even one thing exists
which was not created by Christ. What else could be said that John did not
say? In John 1:18 he explained that Christ has been so intimate with the
Father that He was in His bosom and that He came to earth to exhibit or
portray God. But if we had no other statement from John except that which
is found in John 14:9, "He that has seen me has seen the Father," that would
be enough to satisfy the seeking soul that Christ and God are the same in
essence, and that both are divine and equal in nature.
Besides, the whole tenor of New Testament revelation points in this
direction. Compare Paul's declaration in Colossians 1:19 for instance:
"That all the divine fullness should dwell in Him," or the
statement in Hebrews 1:3, "He is the reflection of God's glory and the
perfect representation of His being, and continues to uphold the universe by
His mighty word" (Williams' translation). And note the sweeping, cosmic
claim recorded in Matthew 28:19, "All authority has been given to me in
heaven and on earth."
And, if we contrast with that the belittling implication that Christ
was only a god, do we not at once detect the discord? Does not such a
conception conflict with the New Testament message both in whole and in
part? Why, if John, in the midst of the idolatry of his day, had made such
a statement would not the first century hearers and readers have gotten a
totally inadequate picture of Christ who we believe is the Creator of the
universe and the only Redeemer of humanity?
Julius Robert Mantey, A.B., Th.D., Ph.D., D.D.
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Northern Baptist Theological Seminary
Chicago, Illinois
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