[B-Greek] A last question on John 1:1

chuckles77 at juno.com chuckles77 at juno.com
Thu Nov 25 23:25:32 EST 2004


Dear list members,

Thank you for your notes and comments, both those posted on the list as well as those sent to me personally.  I have appreciated your insights, which have been very helpful.  Of particular help has been Carl Conrad's suggestions and personal thoughts, which were extremely insightful.  I have enough materials and resources sent to me to keep me busy for quite some time! ;-)

I realize that sometimes topics such as these can be difficult to discuss due to a number of reasons.  I view B-Greek as a place where civil discourse is possible and encouraged, even on issues that, though fitting within the parameters of the list's discussion topics, have been historically difficult for folks to communicate with charity and humility.  My thanks goes to you who have done so.

I do have one final question relating to the Greek text of John 1:1.  The second part of the verse is thus:

KAI hO LOGOS HN PROS TON QEON KAI QEOS HN hO LOGOS

My question is, does the word order in this line produce a chiastic structure by the placing of LOGOS and QEON/QEOS?  And if so how does this affect the understanding of the verse and its translation?  (I'm a bit new to the ASCII format so please forgive any errors in the verse above).

Cordially yours,
Chuck Wynn
Campus Staff, Riverview Church

P.S. I receive B-Greek in digest format, so if there's been any further developments in the discussion, I won't be aware until the next digest goes out.  Thanks!



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