[B-Greek] Once Again: Isaiah 53:7
Richard Ghilardi
qodeshlayhvh at juno.com
Fri Nov 26 13:39:50 EST 2004
Hi Folks,
Is. 53:7: KAI AUTOS DIA TO KEKAKWSQAI OUK ANOIGEI TO STOMA
Quite some time ago I wrote to this list to ask about an alternative
understanding of this verse. I won't review that discussion here. Suffice
it to say that Dr. Pietersma convinced me that my suggested alternative
was wrong and could not be supported. But that left me wondering what
exactly this verse means. The standard translations of this verse go like
this:
"And he, because of his affliction, opens not his mouth" (Brenton)
"and he, on account of his affliction, openeth not his mouth" (Thomson)
If I may rephrase this rendering, I THINK it means something like this:
"The abuse he suffers causes him to keep silent"
But why is this so? Painful abuse usually causes us to cry out as an
expression of that pain. But here the pains he feels makes the Servant
keep quiet. The only explanation I can give for this is that the painful
abuse which the Servant undergoes COWS him into silence. But this
interpretation strikes a dissonant chord in contrast to the noble
character of the Servant as portrayed in the rest of the Song. His
suffering makes him afraid to speak up.
So here is another alternative. Instead of taking DIA TO KEKAKWSQAI as
causative, I tentatively take it as concessive and render thus:
"The abuse he experiences does not cause him to open his mouth."
or
"Despite his ill-treatment, he does not open his mouth."
or
"He doesn't open his mouth just because he's treated badly."
If these renderings must be rejected, then I ask: Given the stylistic and
methodological predilections of the translator of Isaiah, how would, say,
the second translation above be put into Greek? I know it would not be
KAIPER + participle because KAIPER is nowhere found in Isaiah and found
only once (Pr. 6:8) in the translational Greek of the LXX. I seriously
doubt that the translator of Isaiah would use the participle simpliciter
to indicate concession. So how would it go in Greek? I would appreciate
it if Dr. Pietersma and others would point me to some relevent verses in
Isaiah which show how the translator handled concession.
Yours in His grace,
Richard Ghilardi - qodeshlayhvh at juno.com
New Haven, Connecticut USA
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