[B-Greek] Question Regarding Mark's Ending
chuckles77 at juno.com
chuckles77 at juno.com
Wed Oct 20 22:08:29 EDT 2004
(I'm so sorry, I forgot to include a subject for my post. My bad.)
Dear list members,
Hi! My name's Chuck Wynn. I am new to the list (joined about a week ago). I
am not a Greek scholar (but read quite a bit of scholarly work due to my
interest in textual, canonical, and translation studies) and have learned quite
a bit through the dialogue that occurres on lists such as these.
I was wondering if you could help me with two questions I have regarding the end
of the Gospel of Mark:
1) My understanding is that the commonly held view is that the original ending
of Mark has been lost after 16:8. This view espouses the idea that 16:9-20 is
not the original ending, nor did the writer intend to end it at verse 8. I'm
fine with accepting this position, and accepting the Critical Text's reading.
My question is, what theories have been put forth to explain this missing
ending? And what are their merits in relation with each other?
(Please understand that there is a theological reason for me to ask this that
ties into my understanding of the nature of the Old & New Testament.)
2) I have also read about the relationships between the Synoptic Gospels, and
how Mark is believed to have been used in the writing of Matthew and Luke.
My second question is, has anyone ever studied the endings of Matthew and Luke
to see if there might be a Markan "reading" that was lost in Mark's
Gospel itself but preserved in the final chapters of those two Gospels?
Thank you for your assistance!
Chuck Wynn
Campus Staff, Riverview Church
Holt, MI
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