[B-Greek] 1 John 3:9

Ben Crick ben.crick at argonet.co.uk
Tue Oct 26 20:11:39 EDT 2004


On Tue 26 Oct 2004 (16:45:54), sethvm at hotmail.com wrote:
> Now, in regards to the clause about "cannot sin," within its context,
> does the greek seem to clarify whether this is a statement on absolute
> incapability (i.e.: the human has no way of commiting a sin once born
> of God), on impermissiveness and zero tolerance, or on something else?
> So essentially, what does "cannot sin" mean?

 There has long been a debate about this. Jerome in the Vulgate renders the
 phrase OU DUNATAI hAMARTANEIN "non potest peccare", whereas commentators would
 rather he had put "potest non peccare": "Has the ability not to sin" rather
 than "cannot sin".

 ERRWSQE

 Ben
-- 
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