[B-Greek] The sense of APO/AF in 1 Peter 4:17

Mike Dewus dewus at bluemarble.net
Thu Oct 28 22:27:38 EDT 2004


Blank1 Peter 4:17: hOTI hO KAIROS TOU ARXASQAI [aorist middle infinitive] TO 
KRIMA *APO* TOU OIKOU TOU QEOU-EI DE PRWTON *AF* hHMWN, TI TO TELOS TWN 
APEIQOUNTWN [present active participle] TWi TOU QEOU EUAGGELIWi?

Young Literal= because it is the time of the beginning of the judgment 
*from* the house of God, and if first *from* us, what the end of those 
disobedient to the good news of God?

ASV= For the time [is come] for judgment to begin *at* the house of God: and 
if [it begin] first *at* us, what [shall be] the end of them that obey not 
the gospel of God?

RSV= For the time has come for judgment to begin *with* the household of 
God; and if it begins *with* us, what will be the end of those who do not 
obey the gospel of God?

NKJV= For the time has come for judgment to begin *at* the house of God; and 
if it begins *with* us first, what will be the end of those who do not obey 
the gospel of God?

QUESTION: In New Testament usage, APO  can be a preposition reflecting 
either separation (in space or time), or origin ( of a cause, where 
something befalls, comes, or is taken). Should not APO/AF be rendered as a 
preposition of origin ("at" or "with" in both places) here based on the 
context, and seeing there is no verb of motion to be found? I am in no way a 
grammarian (Greek or English)--I was wondering what other grammatical points 
may be adduced to get at the sense of APO/AF here. Thanks, God bless.

kind regards, Mike Dewus
dewus at bluemarble.net 




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