[B-Greek] 1 Cor. 7:1,2
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Fri Oct 29 14:10:11 EDT 2004
Dear Mitch,
>1. PERI DE hWN EGRAYATE, KALON ANQRWPWi GUNAIKOS MH
>hAPTESQAI
>
>2. DIA DE TAS PORNEIAS hEKASTOS THN EAUTOU GUNAIKA
>EXETW, KAI EKhASTH TON IDION ANDRA ECETW
>
>NET Translation:
>
>Now with regard to the issues you wrote about: "It is
>good for a man not to have sexual relations with a
>woman."1 7:2 But because of immoralities, each man
>should have relations with his own wife and each woman
>with her own husband
>
>The NET footnote reads this way:
>
>1tn Grk "It is good for a man not to touch a woman," a
>euphemism for sexual relations. This idiom occurs ten
>times in Greek literature, and all of the references
>except one appear to refer to sexual relations (cf.,
>e.g., Josephus, Ant. 1.8.1 [1.163]; Gen 20:6 [LXX];
>Prov 6:29 [LXX]). For discussion see G. D. Fee, First
>Corinthians (NICNT), 275. Many recent interpreters
>believe that here again (as in 6:12-13) Paul cites a
>slogan the Corinthians apparently used to justify
>their actions. If this is so, Paul agrees with the
>slogan in part, but corrects it in the following
>verses to show how the Corinthians misused the idea to
>justify abstinence within marriage (cf. 8:1, 4;
>10:23). See also G. D. Fee, "1 Corinthians 7:1 in the
>NIV, " JETS 23 (1980): 307-14.
>
>This translation and footnote have confused me.
>
>Based on the above translation, it would appear that
>the translators do not take verse 1 as referring to a
>current marriage situation.
HH: I think verse 1 speaks in abstract terms: It is a good thing if a
man does not touch a woman (have sexual relations with woman).
> What are the biblical and
>lexical options here? Is this describing acceptable
>sexual behavior between a man and woman in a courting
>relationship (for example, since the translation uses
>man and woman not husband and wife in verse 1), or
>does Paul envision some other kind of relationship?
HH: Verse 1 involves a euphemism for having sexual relations with a woman.
>Based on the footnote, I take it that perhaps Paul is
>referring to those within a marriage relationship but
>for whatever reason have come to believe that sex is
>to be avoided. Is this ambiguous enough to allow for
>both scenarios? (That is, either within a marriage,
>you should not abstain from sex. And, outside a
>marriage, you should only have sex within the bonds of marriage.)
HH: I don't agree with the footnote. Verse 2 is recommending marriage
as the standard pattern for people because of the danger of
fornication. It's not talking about married people engaging in sex.
To "have a wife" is to have one by entering into a marriage, I think.
Verse 2 recommends marriage, and verse 3 clarifies that even in
marriage one partner should not normally forbid the other partner his
or her sexual rights. The same phrase of ECW with GUNH as object
occurs in verse 12 of having a wife:
1Cor. 7:12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother
"hath a wife" that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with
him, let him not put her away.
HH: See also:
1Cor. 7:29 But this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth,
that both they that "have wives" be as though they had none;
HH: Elsewhere see:
Luke 20:28 Saying, Master, Moses wrote unto us, If any man's brother
die, "having a wife," and he die without children, that his brother
should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
HH: And see:
1Esdr. 9:18: And there were found of the priests who were gathering
together foreigners who "had wives"
HH: See also 1 Esdr 9:12.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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