[B-Greek] 1 Cor. 7:1,2
Joseph Weaks
j.weaks at tcu.edu
Fri Oct 29 15:55:01 EDT 2004
On Oct 29, 2004, at 2:23 PM, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
>> > HH: I think verse 1 speaks in abstract terms: It is
>>> a good thing if a
>>> man does not touch a woman (have sexual relations
>>> with woman).
>>
>> Then this would require it to be addressing a marriage
>> relationship, right? (For surely it IS a good thing if
>> a married man touches his wife.)
>
> HH: Paul is speaking in the abstract, perhaps contemplating a man who
> was not yet married.
It's a good example of the issue regarding quotations in the GNT.
Thanks to the additions of Rhetorical scholarship, any good and recent
commentary on Corinthians points out that Paul is taking this quote
from a previous letter/contact he has received from them. It need not
be a "slogan" as the NET note says, but rather could be quoted their
correspondence. Notice also the failure of the NIV to put the quote of
v. 1 in quotes and properly identify what's going on.
The quote comes from some in the church who are advocating that even
married people should abstain from sexual relations. This ideal has
something to do with a realized eschatology ("We're just spiritual
beings now, not carnal ones.") that Paul warns against over and over
again in 1 Corinthians. Paul is refuting this practice, and making
consolations ("Go ahead and have sex, so you don't fall prey to other
practices."), as he does over and over again in 1 Corinthians.
My 2¢,
Joe Weaks
**************************************************************
Rev. Joseph A. Weaks
Senior Minister, Bethany Christian Church, Dallas
Ph.D. (Cand.), Brite Divinity School, Ft. Worth
j.weaks at tcu.edu
**************************************************************
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