[B-Greek] 1 Cor. 7:1,2
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Fri Oct 29 21:03:23 EDT 2004
Dear Ann,
>No, no idea what you mean, I don't know how you extracted that from my post.
>Read Cambridge scholar Instone-Brewer's work (which is freely available in
>print and also on the net), it sums up the current scholarship. Ic an't type
>well enough to set it all for you eher,.
>And if you read my post again, you will note that I am not saying Paul said
>it at all, I am agreeing with the current scholarship which says that Paul
>responsed to a quote.
HH: But Paul speaks in verse 2, and he uses the word GUNH, and it is
there that people would translate it wife, not so much in verse 1,
where most everybody translates "woman." So verse 1 is not really
relevant to the point you made. And the words you referred to, "have
a woman," come from verse 2, which Paul clearly said. So would you
please answer my questions. They're not rhetorical questions. I'm
trying to find out what you're saying.
Thanks for the name of Instone-Brewer. I looked at some of his material.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
> > >It actually just means to have a woman, not necessarily a wife (we have
>to
>> >be careful not to impose our own cultural viewpoint on western marriage
>> >today back into marriage in first century Palestine), and the current
>> >scholarship certainly is precisely as Joe Weaks stated it.
>>
>> HH: What point are you trying to make? Do you think Paul would not go
>> along with God's idea of marriage? Or are you saying we shouldn't use
>> the word "wife"? That's the word we use in our culture, even if GUNH
>> could cover both "woman" and "wife." Are you suggesting Paul just
> > means a man should have a woman and not a wife?
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