[B-Greek] Revelation 7:10

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Fri Sep 3 15:59:49 EDT 2004


Dear Carl,

>It seems unlikely to me, although I can how one might conceive it if one
>understands the noun hH SWTHRIA as equivalent somehow to SWZOMEQA or
>SESWiSMEQA; but even the verbal noun SWTHRIA used with a dative without an
>explicit verbs seems best explained as having an implicit ESTI(N) and the
>dative should be understood as a dative of the possessor. On the other
>hand, what adds a bit of credibility to the notion that the dative is
>instrumental is that the author of Revelation is notorious for violation of
>grammatical standards normally observed elsewhere in the GNT.
--

HH: I think your answer is better than my earlier one, but I notice 
that some translations (HCSB, NET, NIV) handle Rev 7:10 is "belongs 
to," but then translate the same basic grammar in 7:12 as "be to." In 
other words, they make 7:10 a declarative statement and 7:12 a wish. 
Do you think that both verses should be translated with something 
like "belongs to," or do you favor varying the translation? If you 
favor the latter, could you please explain why. Thanks. They seem so 
identical in structure.

				Yours,
				Harold Holmyard



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