[B-Greek] Luke 12:4 FOBHQHTE why not an imperative?
D Jongkind
dj214 at cam.ac.uk
Wed Sep 8 06:09:38 EDT 2004
Luke 12:4
LEGW DE UMIN TOIS FILOIS MOU, MH FOBHQHTE APO TWN APOKTEINONTWN TO SWMA
KAI META TAUTA MH ECONTWN PERISSOTERON TI POIHSAI
and Luke 12:5
... NAI LEGW UMIN, TOUTON FOBHQHTE
In Luke 12:4, FOBHQHTE is accented as a subjunctive, while in the part
of the next verse that I cited it is accented as an imperative. What
could be the reasoning for choosing the subjunctive above the imperative
in verse 4? The structures of the two sentences is roughly equal, and
the context clearly requires an imperative in the latter example. So
what am I missing?
Regards,
Dirk Jongkind
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