[B-Greek] Luke 12:4 FOBHQHTE why not an imperative?

D Jongkind dj214 at cam.ac.uk
Wed Sep 8 06:09:38 EDT 2004


Luke 12:4
LEGW DE UMIN TOIS FILOIS MOU, MH FOBHQHTE APO TWN APOKTEINONTWN TO SWMA 
KAI META TAUTA MH ECONTWN PERISSOTERON TI POIHSAI

and Luke 12:5

... NAI LEGW UMIN, TOUTON FOBHQHTE

In Luke 12:4, FOBHQHTE is accented as a subjunctive, while in the part 
of the next verse that I cited it is accented as an imperative. What 
could be the reasoning for choosing the subjunctive above the imperative 
in verse 4? The structures of the two sentences is roughly equal, and 
the context clearly requires an imperative in the latter example. So 
what am I missing?

Regards,
Dirk Jongkind



More information about the B-Greek mailing list