[B-Greek] 1 John 4:1

Dony K. Donev dony at cupandcross.com
Wed Sep 8 17:53:26 EDT 2004


Why is PNEUMATA (plural) used with ESTIN (singular) in 1 John 4:1?

 

I read the thread from 2001 about the use of ESTIN with plural subject (TIM. A' 1:20 -- hWN ESTIN hUMENAIOS KAI ALEXANDROS...) and the related conclusions. The obvious difference is that 1 John 4:1 does not contain a compound subject as does 1 Tim. 1:20. Does the same principle of translation still apply?



Dony K. Donev




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