[B-Greek] Aorist as an 'x' rather than a '.' (dot)

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Mon Aug 1 17:57:39 EDT 2005



Eddie Mishoe wrote:

>This is from Smyth (p 414). Of course, Smyth is more
>so concerned with Classical Greek, but my question
>deals with why most grammarians, including Smyth
>himself, want to define the verbal aspect of the
>Aorist as a point or dot. This would seem to imply
>"completion," which seems more suitable for the domain
>of the Perfect.
>

No- the aorist describes action completed in the past and the perfect 
describes action completed in the past- but with implications for the 
present.

>Why is it generally taught that the
>Aorist portrays the event in its entirety or as a
>whole? Rather than the Aorist being portrayed by a dot
>or period, which implies completion, would it not be
>more accurate to label it with an "x" ? That way, we
>avoid putting something definite with an indefinite
>concept. 
>  
>

But it is a definite action completed in the past- that's why every 
grammar describes it in that way.

Jim

-- 
D. Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com




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