[B-Greek] John 1 Questions
malcolm robertson
mjriii2003 at yahoo.com
Thu Aug 4 15:47:30 EDT 2005
Dear Dony,
I think it is quite odd that a relative pronoun would be used to start a sentence (a clause - yes) in Greek. If someone has concrete examples please post them. Doctrinal considerations aside, this example at Jn 1:3 should be capable of elucidation at the grammar level. Normally a relative pronoun has an antecedent and to which it agrees in gender and number. It's own case is determined by it's usage in it's own clause. As far as punctuation goes at Jn 1:3, I would have to disagree with both Metzger et al and Westcott and Hort. The OUDE hEN hO GEGONEN is all inclusive and not solely limited to EN AUWi ZWH HN.
Remember that the early Uncial manuscripts had a continuous capital script text (no spaces or punctuation) so the punctuations we see in printed editions of the Greek New Testament are reflective of decisions not displayed in the hand written NT text itself.
I think the English Standard Version has correctly understood and translated this verse by placing the period after hO GEGONEN.
Cordially in HIm,
Malcolm Robertson
_____________________________
"Dony K. Donev" <dony at cupandcross.com> wrote:
I have several questions about John 1 as follows:
1:1 Is "in God" better translated "with God?"
1:2 Is "He" an appropriate rendering of OUTOS in v.2?
1:3 Is EV the end of the sentence in v.3?
1:9 Since it can be both masculine and neuter, does ERKOMENON refer to the light or to every man?
1:16 How does ANTI in v.16 translates, apart from the usual rendering of the phrase "grace for/upon grace?"
Dony K. Donev
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