[B-Greek] Passive Imperative

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Sun Aug 14 18:13:50 EDT 2005


On Aug 14, 2005, at 6:06 PM, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:

> Dear Elizabeth,
>
>
>>> I feel quite comfortable with the middle-passive classification
>>>  of verbs since Hebrew Niphal and Hithpael verbs can both be passive
>>>  or middle. Context gives guidance as to which it is. But what about
>>>  forms in Greek where there is a difference between middle and  
>>> passive
>>>  forms? There I would not expect flexibility, since otherwise why  
>>> have
>>>  a distinction in forms.
>>>
>>
>> This seems to imply that a distinction in form *requires* a
>> distinction in function.
>>
>
> Hh: Since languages can grow like Topsy, a distinction of function is
> not obligatory. But if there is a distinction between the middle and
> passive voices formalized in a distinction of forms, one does expect
> a difference of function.

As I do not tire of saying, Greek is a language in flux; it is  
certainly a language in flux in the NT period. I would say that, just  
as there is no discernible difference in meaning between EIDA and  
EIDON as first-person singular aorist forms, and just as there is  
frequently no difference of meaning between perfect-tense and aorist- 
tense indicatives, so there is no difference in meaning between  
APEKRINAMHN and APEKRIQHN.


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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