[B-Greek] Passive Imperative
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at ioa.com
Sun Aug 14 18:13:50 EDT 2005
On Aug 14, 2005, at 6:06 PM, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
> Dear Elizabeth,
>
>
>>> I feel quite comfortable with the middle-passive classification
>>> of verbs since Hebrew Niphal and Hithpael verbs can both be passive
>>> or middle. Context gives guidance as to which it is. But what about
>>> forms in Greek where there is a difference between middle and
>>> passive
>>> forms? There I would not expect flexibility, since otherwise why
>>> have
>>> a distinction in forms.
>>>
>>
>> This seems to imply that a distinction in form *requires* a
>> distinction in function.
>>
>
> Hh: Since languages can grow like Topsy, a distinction of function is
> not obligatory. But if there is a distinction between the middle and
> passive voices formalized in a distinction of forms, one does expect
> a difference of function.
As I do not tire of saying, Greek is a language in flux; it is
certainly a language in flux in the NT period. I would say that, just
as there is no discernible difference in meaning between EIDA and
EIDON as first-person singular aorist forms, and just as there is
frequently no difference of meaning between perfect-tense and aorist-
tense indicatives, so there is no difference in meaning between
APEKRINAMHN and APEKRIQHN.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list