[B-Greek] Jn 3:16 lack of AUTOU

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Thu Dec 1 10:04:52 EST 2005


Eddie, would you care to elaborate on this? It's true that in older  
Greek we find such expressions hO D' EFH or hOI D' EIPON ..., but in  
an expression like this, there can be no claim that TON in TON hUION  
MONOGENH is a pronoun rather than an article. Of course the article  
is a pronoun,but I think you mean something more here (unless I'm  
mistaken). In the modern Greek an enclitic TOU following a noun and  
meaning "his"  is simply a foreshortened form of the ancient AUTOU.

On Dec 1, 2005, at 8:43 AM, Eddie Mishoe wrote:

> I agree here, but would add that the definite article
> IS, often enough, a personal pronoun in Greek, not
> just a weak demonstrative.
>
> Eddie Mishoe
>
> --- Yancy Smith <Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu> wrote:
>
>> In Greek as well as in other languages, body parts,
>> near relatives
>> and other personal appurtenances are often
>> "unmarked" for possession
>> where such marking is required in English. We say
>> "my hand" instead
>> of "the hand." However, in colloquial English we
>> find "the old man"
>> or "the wife" (meaning roughly "my Dad" or "my
>> wife.") The definite
>> article--very often in Greek--in such cases is
>> enough to mark
>> possession. Remember that the definite article
>> sometimes functions as
>> a weak demonstrative pronoun and may function in
>> such cases as a
>> marker of possession.
>>
>> Yancy Smith
>> Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
>> Brite Divinity School
>> Texas Christian University
>>
>>
>>
>> ---
>> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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>>
>
>
>
> 		
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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