[B-Greek] 2 Peter 3:11-a negative??
Lorinda Hoover and Jim Mossman
hoovmoss at iowatelecom.net
Fri Dec 2 14:30:11 EST 2005
> From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at ioa.com>
> Date: Fri, 2 Dec 2005 10:32:03 -0500
> To: Lorinda Hoover and Jim Mossman <hoovmoss at iowatelecom.net>
> Cc: B-Greek <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 2 Peter 3:11-a negative??
>
>
> On Dec 2, 2005, at 10:17 AM, Lorinda Hoover and Jim Mossman wrote:
>
>> Greetings again.
>>
>> In working on 2 Peter 3:11,
>>
>> TOUTWN hOUTWS PANTWN LUOMENWN POTATOUS DEI hUPARCEIN [hUMAS] EN hAGIAS
>> ANASTROFAIS KAI EUSEBEIAS.
>
> That should be POTAPOUS and hAGIAIS KAI EUSEBEIAIS, ...
my apologies for the typos.
>>
>> I looked at several translations, and found something odd in Segond:
>
> So now B-Greekers are consultants on how best to translate Greek into
> French?
>
Perhaps I was not clear with my question. I wasn't asking about the best
way to translate it into French. When I am having trouble understanding the
syntax or the meaning of a Greek verse, I often consult several modern
translations to see how they understood the verse. This often helps me see
what I am missing in the grammar/syntax in Greek. Because I am fairly
fluent in French (although obviously rustier than I realized), the Segond
translation is sometimes one of those I consult. This time, Segond raised a
question for me about how the Greek might be understood. It seemed fairly
apparent to me that the negative was added to make more sense of this verse,
but I wanted to make sure I wasn't missing something.
Your later point about "quelles", however, helped me realize that part of my
struggle with this verse (and the following one) is the interoggative-Where
does the question end? Where does the answer begin? These questions are,
in part, determined by the punctuation of the GNT, which I recognize is not
itself within the scope of B-Greek, so I withdraw my question.
I would like clarification on one point of B-Greek "ettiquette." Is it,
then, not appropriate to refer to non-English modern translations in asking
questions about understanding the Greek text? I just went back and read the
B-Greek FAQ, and I did not see such a reference, although the only mention
to modern translations is to English translations (i.e. posts should not be
"general questions or opinions about doctrine or the meaning of the English
text.") It was not my intention to break the rules or to push the envelope
on the scope of B-Greek discussions. My apologies if I have done so.
Blessings,
Lorinda Hoover
--
Lorinda H. M. Hoover
UMC Pastor and Stay-at-home mom
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