[B-Greek] One man one woman

W Ellison el_guero2000 at yahoo.com
Thu Dec 8 14:11:23 EST 2005


  I am curious about the constructions of:
   
  MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA and MIAS GUNAIKOS ANHR
   
  I would think that since both the term for woman and man had secondary meanings of wife and husband, that in the context of the NT church most people would hear these phrases as a "husband of one wife".
   
  The real reason that I am asking is that I have been told that this was preposterous.  And while, I would like to think my literal translation is preposterous, I seem to be close to the traditional interpretation.  Is there any linguistic reason to believe the traditional translation was not literal?
   
  I was referred to Robertson (I assume: Robertson, A Grammar of . . ., 496), and while I find refference to this possibly being an attributive genetive.  I really do not see that people in the NT era would have thought, "A man of (with) a woman."
   
  Wayne 'Roy' Ellison
SWBTS


			
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