[B-Greek] Matt 3:17 EUDOKHSA
Ken Penner
pennerkm at mcmaster.ca
Thu Dec 15 08:42:03 EST 2005
I think I have only used "simple past" to refer to English tenses, not Greek
tenses.
The lexical aspect of EUDOKEW becomes an issue here (it is not a dynamic
verb, but is it always durative?). I would think EUDOKHSA in Matt 3:17
could be either E<S (I have become pleased) or E=S (I am pleased). But again
here, I think we have the complicating factor of Semitic influence: the
suffix conjugation of Hebrew (which is used for the present of stative
verbs) is conventionally translated into the Aorist of Greek.
Ken Penner, M.C.S. (Greek), M.A. (Hebrew),
Ph.D. (cand.), McMaster University
Coordinator, Funk's Grammar Digitization Project
pennerkm at mcmaster.ca
Greek vocabulary software: http://s91279732.onlinehome.us/flash or
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/flash_pro/join
_____
From: Yancy Smith [mailto:Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu]
Sent: December 15, 2005 9:29 AM
To: pennerkm at mcmaster.ca
Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject:
When you are referring to "simple past" is assume you are meaning historic
present, aorist, imperfect?
What about the aorist tense in the classic example used to show a
timelessness (Matt 3:17):
hOUTOS ESTIN hO hUIOS MOU hO AGAPHTOS, EN hWi EUDOKHSA
It does not seem in this case that E<S but that E=S since the speech
constitutes the event (an effective pronouncement).
Yancy Smith
Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
Brite Divinity School
Texas Christian University
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list