[B-Greek] objective/subjective genitive

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Fri Dec 16 04:33:14 EST 2005


Yes, and Wallace even has the category "Plenary Genitive" as a  
pigeonhole for it. What bothers me about this and other all-too- 
numerous subcategories of grammatical classifications is that they  
are formulated in terms of how one translates a phrase into English  
rather than in terms of the nature of the Greek construction. The  
Greek adnominal genitive is a structural, not a genuinely semantic  
case-function; it works like compound names such as English  
"Lovejoy" (love of joy? joy of love? joyous love? ecstasy?) or German  
names such as Wolfgang Mozart's "Amadeus."

On Dec 16, 2005, at 12:06 AM, Eddie Mishoe wrote:

> Pastor:
>
> The both/and view is not at all uncommon.
>
> Eddie Mishoe
>
> --- Gordon Goltz <pastorpete69 at hotmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Fellow subscribers
>>    Why do we, of the western mind-set, always have
>> to make distinctions:
>> either/or? Can we not face the reality that at times
>> a statement can be:
>> both/and?

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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