[B-Greek] Perfect Passive Participles: Is the past action a process or punctiliar event? Eph. 2:8

Laurence Schell laurenceschell at yahoo.co.uk
Fri Dec 23 13:12:36 EST 2005


In Ephesians 2:8, "are saved," I recall is a perfect passive, I think but am not sure, participle. Does this refer to a one-time event completed in the past or a process completed in the past? Also does the participle make it a past process? Or is a any kind of perfect referring to a past process anyhow? There are several instances in the NT of the words "are sanctified" being translated from a perfect passive participle. I understand why the English present tense is used; but is the Greek perfect to be understood as speaking of a process completed in the past? If so, then is Ephesians 2:8, for grammatical reasons, to be understood differently as a one-time event completed in the past with continuing results? I will be checking e-mails the Tuesday or Wednesday after Christmas. Perhaps some people may have time to answer.
   
  Sincerely,
  Laurence E. Schell

		
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