[B-Greek] John's use of the definite article with theos throughout his gospel
Robb Wallace
robbw at calvary-tricities.org
Fri Dec 30 14:15:41 EST 2005
Hi there,
This is not a question about anarthrous predicates preceding the verb (i.e.
Jn 1:1c) but rather a general question as to the reason John at times leaves
out the article with theos throughout his gospel. There are many occurrences
of leaving out the article with prepositional phrases (1:6, 13, 3:2, 21,
13:3, 16:30) which could be attributed to simply being in a prep. prase, but
there are other times when John has the article with theos (3:16, 17,
3:33,34, 5:18, etc.) and then for no apparent reason (at least to me) he
leaves it out in other places (6:45, 8:54, 9:33, 10:33, 17:3, etc.). I was
going on the hypothesis that John articulated theos when referring to Jesus
(i.e. Son of God, Lamb of God, etc.) and left it anarthrous when referring
to the Father but that fell through (3:3,5 Kingdom of God, 3:36 Wrath of
God, 5:42 love of God, are all articulated but most likely refer to the
Father, not Jesus). In 1:12 John leaves out the article (sons of God) but in
1:51 puts it in (angels of God). Do you have any idea as to the significance
for the absence (or presence) of the definite article in John’s gospel?
Robb
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