[B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???
MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS at aol.com
MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS at aol.com
Thu Feb 3 01:15:07 EST 2005
Dear Rebecca,
I came across two quotes by that seems to say that the NWT did intend to
define the Greek John 5:58 EGO EIMI to mean 'an event of past time'
"The Greek has a tense which is not found in the English: that tense which
denotes action which began in the past and is still in progress. This tense is
stated in the present tense and should be translated or rendered in the English
perfect or as some still say the past tense. The above translations of John
8:58 are examples of this."
Nelson Herle A letter to Walter R. Martin, April 2, 1978
"Whether one calls the tense the "perfect," "perfect indefinite," or "perfect
tense indicative," all mean basically the same thing, "an event of past
time." The terms "perfect" and "perfect tense indicative" are more common than "the
perfect tense indefinite" and have been used in more recent editions of the
NWT for the sake of using a more common term, not a more correct one."
Nelson Herle, The Trinity Doctrine, p50, 1983
Sincerely
Richard Windisch
Dear Richard,
Not so...the words "perfect indefinite tense" were NOT referring to the
Greek EGO EIMI but the _English rendering_ "I have been" found in the NWT!
Rebecca Barnard
Norwich
UK
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