[B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???

MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS at aol.com MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS at aol.com
Thu Feb 3 01:15:07 EST 2005


Dear Rebecca, 
I came across two quotes by that seems to say that the NWT did intend to 
define  the Greek John 5:58 EGO EIMI to mean 'an event of past time'

"The Greek has a tense which is not found in the English: that tense which 
denotes action which began in the past and is still in progress. This tense is 
stated in the present tense and should be translated or rendered in the English 
perfect or as some still say the past tense. The above translations of John 
8:58 are examples of this." 
Nelson Herle  A letter to Walter R. Martin, April 2, 1978

"Whether one calls the tense the "perfect," "perfect indefinite," or "perfect 
tense indicative," all mean basically the same thing, "an event of past 
time." The terms "perfect" and "perfect tense indicative" are more common than "the 
perfect tense indefinite" and have been used in more recent editions of the 
NWT for the sake of using a more common term, not a more correct one." 
Nelson Herle, The Trinity Doctrine, p50, 1983

Sincerely 
Richard Windisch

Dear Richard,
Not so...the words "perfect indefinite tense" were NOT referring to the 
Greek EGO EIMI but the _English rendering_ "I have been" found in the NWT!
Rebecca Barnard
Norwich
UK



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