Fw: [B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???

beb beb at tolstoy.freeserve.co.uk
Thu Feb 3 02:42:14 EST 2005


Dear Richard,
As has been pointed out, this topic, that is, how an English NT translation
has rendered EGO EIMI at John 8.58 is beyond this lists purpose then may I
conclude by saying that I would advise you to locate a 1950 edition of this
version and read the footnote for yourself. The expression "perfect
indefinite tense" refers the the "render[ing]" _not_ to the Greek.
Take care
Rebecca Barnard
Norwich
UK

----- Original Message ----- 
From: <MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS at aol.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, February 03, 2005 6:15 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???


> Dear Rebecca,
> I came across two quotes by that seems to say that the NWT did intend to
> define  the Greek John 5:58 EGO EIMI to mean 'an event of past time'
>
> "The Greek has a tense which is not found in the English: that tense which
> denotes action which began in the past and is still in progress. This 
> tense is
> stated in the present tense and should be translated or rendered in the 
> English
> perfect or as some still say the past tense. The above translations of 
> John
> 8:58 are examples of this."
> Nelson Herle  A letter to Walter R. Martin, April 2, 1978
>
> "Whether one calls the tense the "perfect," "perfect indefinite," or 
> "perfect
> tense indicative," all mean basically the same thing, "an event of past
> time." The terms "perfect" and "perfect tense indicative" are more common 
> than "the
> perfect tense indefinite" and have been used in more recent editions of 
> the
> NWT for the sake of using a more common term, not a more correct one."
> Nelson Herle, The Trinity Doctrine, p50, 1983
>
> Sincerely
> Richard Windisch
>
> Dear Richard,
> Not so...the words "perfect indefinite tense" were NOT referring to the
> Greek EGO EIMI but the _English rendering_ "I have been" found in the NWT!
> Rebecca Barnard
> Norwich
> UK
> ---
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> 




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