[B-Greek] John 8:58 as translation greek

Michael Abernathy mabernathy at isot.com
Thu Feb 3 10:43:22 EST 2005


I just thought I would add my two cents to this discussion of John 8:58. 
It seems to me that we have only three assumptions we can make about 
direct quotes as they apply to Jesus: 1. Jesus spoke Greek (I don't know 
very many scholars who would take this position.), 2. The author has 
fabricated the quote for reasons of his own (Some may accept this. I 
don't.), 3. All quotes of Jesus represent an honest attempt to translate 
His words from either Aramaic or Hebrew.
If the third option is assumed, then we have some basis for clarifying 
what Jesus meant by EGO EIMI.

I see only two likely possibilities for what John translated as EGO EIMI.

1. Jesus said eyeh (I am not aware if b-greek has a standard for 
transliterating Hebrew).
This imperfect verb could be used as a reference to the Divine Name but 
could also be translated as EGO EIMI.
Although, the meaning of the imperfect has been debated on b-hebrew, I 
note that Rabbi Yitzchak understood that it lacks a definite time sense 
and interpreted it to mean,  "I am He Who has been, Who is now, and Who 
will be in the future."
This suggests to me that His listeners would understand EGW EIMI as a 
statement of an existence that stretched back in time to the beginning 
and continuing at least to the time of the statement if not until the 
end of time.

2. Jesus said ani hu.
Ani hu could be translated "I am he."  In phrases like "ani hu" which  
had no verb, the copulative could be assumed. This could be 
interepreted  "I am the Messiah." However, I believe that EGO EIMI is an 
inadequate translation of "I am he."
Aramaic also used hu as a copulative which brings us back to "I am" as 
the translation.
This brings us back to the possibility that EGO EIMI is a reference to 
the Divine Name.
Joseph Baumgarten noted the similarity between ani hu and the substitute 
for the Divine Name found in Mishnah Sukk. 4:5.
Others have noted that ani hu is used in the Hebrew Bible primarly in 
statements uttered by Yahweh.

I am aware that modern Hebrew uses the participle to translate the 
present tense, but I don't know if there is any evidence that this 
practice started prior to the time that John wrote.

In Sanhedrin 7:5 the  Mishnah states that only those blasphemers who 
utter the Divine Name were culpable to the point of death.  While the 
actions of those Jews in John 8:59 is a mob act and not a legal attempt 
at execution, this makes me prone to think that Jesus said eyeh. 
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy



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