[B-Greek] John 8:58 as translation Greek

Michael mabernathy at isot.com
Thu Feb 3 17:50:31 EST 2005


Solomon,

I did not mean to emphasize any connection with Exodus 3:14. However, I 
do not know any way to say, "I am" in Hebrew that has not been 
understood by Hebrew scholars as a reference to the Divine Name. 
"Why does this same Hebrew word EHYEH demand translation as "I AM" at 
Exodus 3:14?"
I don't know that it has to be translated as "I AM" but Jewish scholars 
have recognized this translation for centuries.  More recently, you 
might want to check U. Cassuto, A Commentary on the Book of Exodus 
(Jerusalem: The Magnes Press, 1967), 37-38, or Moses ben Nahman, Ramban 
Commentary on the Torah (New York: Shiloh Publishing House, Inc., 1973), 
36, or The Midrash Rabbah, ed. Rabbi Dr. H. Freedman and Maurice Simon, 
trans. Rabbi Dr. S. M. Lehrman, 5 vols., vol. 2 (New York: The Soncino 
Press, 1977), 64-65 (especially note the footnote on page 64).

As for the LXX rendering of Exodus 3:14 being a paraphrase, see John 
William Wevers, LXX: Notes on the Greek Text of Exodus (Atlanta: 
Scholars Press, 1990), 33-34 
Wevers points out that it would be grammatically absurd to translate 
EHYEH literally as the subject of apestalken and resorts to a participle 
as a  "straightforward attempt to make an acceptable Greek version of 
the Hebrew."

Leaving aside any theological implications, I would think that ani hu 
has the forced of a simple copulative "I am" not "I was."   On the other 
hand, EHYEH may be translated to include past, present, and future 
implications. To say "Before Abraham was, I AM (EGW EIMI) suggests both 
past and present.
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy



-- 
No virus found in this outgoing message.
Checked by AVG Anti-Virus.
Version: 7.0.300 / Virus Database: 265.8.5 - Release Date: 2/3/05




More information about the B-Greek mailing list