[B-Greek] 1 John 1:5

sheldon bryan shelterpro at msn.com
Tue Feb 15 15:31:21 EST 2005


Two very important grammatical markers within this text help us to make 
decisions about its "literalness", both revolving around the semantic 
implications of the subject-predicate nominative relationship.
1.  FWS is an anarthrous pre-verbal predicate nominative... Research has 
shown that these are usually qualitative, not definite. So the verse is more 
than likely speaking about a quality of  O QEOS not identifying O QEOS.
2. Further support for the qualitative idea is provided by the fact that 
within this particular subject-predicate nominative construction, only the 
subject, O QEOS, is articular and the predicate nominative, FWS, is not a 
pronoun nor is it a proper name.  Whenever this happens, the relationship 
expressed is a type of subset relationship with the predicate nominative 
being the general term, or metaphor and the subject expressing a type, 
clarification, or meaning of the general term. In this way, what is being 
expressed is not a mathematical truth O QEOS = FWS; FWS= O QEOS, but a way 
of perceiving, and presenting the qualities, nature of O QEOS.

Sheldon R. Bryan


>Question Part 1
>
>1 John 1:5 says that God is light, O QEOS FWS ESTIN.
>
>What aspect of this verse can be understood as literal, if any? To what
>degree is the metaphor based upon the literal? Or must it be understood 
>only
>as metaphor?
>
>Charles D. Rempel
>30 Year Student
>Without Portfolio
>
>---
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