[B-Greek] I John 3:18 and ALLA as "as well as"

Joseph Weaks j.weaks at tcu.edu
Sun Feb 20 09:29:50 EST 2005


On Feb 20, 2005, at 8:02 AM, Eric Weiss wrote:
> BDAG translates I John 3:18 as follows (under AGAPAW 3):
>
> TEKNIA, MH AGAPWMEN LOGWi MHDE THi GLWSSHi
> ALLA EN ERGW KAI ALHTEIAi.
>
> ...I don't see this meaning of "as well as" in the examples in BDAG
> under ALLA (unless I'm overlooking it).
>
> If BDAG is correct in its translation of ALLA in I John 3:18, what is
> the rule for so doing - or is it just Danker's contextual 
> interpretation
> of the verse?

I see what you mean, Eric. Of course, I immediately went to the 
critical apparatus to see if there was a MONON or an ALLA KAI inserted 
in a variant reading. No luck! Still, while I'm not looking at BDAG, 
I'm not sure the argument is for an exclusive contrast by default. Is 
it appropriate to point out, do you think, that there's no MONON in the 
apodosis either, so it is not explicitly an exclusive contrast?
Dare I recall that Bauer's nuanced definitions are  created by looking 
at words in their semantic context and, er... well... guessing? If you 
argued to me that the author is obviously arguing in 1John to be loving 
with words, too, I might just buy it. In fact, let me just pencil in an 
appropriate adverb... there. :)

Cheers,
Joe

**************************************************************
Rev. Joseph A. Weaks
Senior Minister, Bethany Christian Church, Dallas
Ph.D. (Cand.), Brite Divinity School, Ft. Worth
j.weaks at tcu.edu

The Macintosh Biblioblog  http://macbiblioblog.blogspot.com
"All things Macintosh for the Bible Scholar"
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