[B-Greek] I John 3:18 and ALLA as "as well as"
Joseph Weaks
j.weaks at tcu.edu
Sun Feb 20 09:29:50 EST 2005
On Feb 20, 2005, at 8:02 AM, Eric Weiss wrote:
> BDAG translates I John 3:18 as follows (under AGAPAW 3):
>
> TEKNIA, MH AGAPWMEN LOGWi MHDE THi GLWSSHi
> ALLA EN ERGW KAI ALHTEIAi.
>
> ...I don't see this meaning of "as well as" in the examples in BDAG
> under ALLA (unless I'm overlooking it).
>
> If BDAG is correct in its translation of ALLA in I John 3:18, what is
> the rule for so doing - or is it just Danker's contextual
> interpretation
> of the verse?
I see what you mean, Eric. Of course, I immediately went to the
critical apparatus to see if there was a MONON or an ALLA KAI inserted
in a variant reading. No luck! Still, while I'm not looking at BDAG,
I'm not sure the argument is for an exclusive contrast by default. Is
it appropriate to point out, do you think, that there's no MONON in the
apodosis either, so it is not explicitly an exclusive contrast?
Dare I recall that Bauer's nuanced definitions are created by looking
at words in their semantic context and, er... well... guessing? If you
argued to me that the author is obviously arguing in 1John to be loving
with words, too, I might just buy it. In fact, let me just pencil in an
appropriate adverb... there. :)
Cheers,
Joe
**************************************************************
Rev. Joseph A. Weaks
Senior Minister, Bethany Christian Church, Dallas
Ph.D. (Cand.), Brite Divinity School, Ft. Worth
j.weaks at tcu.edu
The Macintosh Biblioblog http://macbiblioblog.blogspot.com
"All things Macintosh for the Bible Scholar"
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