[B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
Eric Weiss
papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Tue Feb 22 08:12:48 EST 2005
Is there greater semantic force to verbless sentences than if the sentences
were to have the understood verb? I'm thinking offhand of Romans 7:24a -
TALAIPWROS EGW ANQRWPOS and Romans 8:1 OUDEN ARA
KATAKRIMA TOIS EN CRISTWi IHSOU.
How about sentences that have adjectival participles but no finite verbs - e.g.,
2 Cor. 1:21 - hO DE BEBAIWN hHMAS SUN hUMIN EIS CRISTON KAI
KRISAS hHMAS QEOS, hO KAI SFRAGISAMENOS hHMAS KAI DOUS
TON ARRABWNA TOU PNEUMATOS EN TAIS KARDIAIS hHMWN?
Or is this omission of finite verbs simply stylistic and has no different
semantic force than the same sentence would if it had finite verbs?
Eric S. Weiss
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