[B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?

Eric Weiss papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Tue Feb 22 08:12:48 EST 2005


Is there greater semantic force to verbless sentences than if the sentences 
were to have the understood verb? I'm thinking offhand of Romans 7:24a - 
TALAIPWROS EGW ANQRWPOS and Romans 8:1 OUDEN ARA 
KATAKRIMA TOIS EN CRISTWi IHSOU.
 
How about sentences that have adjectival participles but no finite verbs - e.g., 
2 Cor. 1:21 - hO DE BEBAIWN hHMAS SUN hUMIN EIS CRISTON KAI 
KRISAS hHMAS QEOS, hO KAI SFRAGISAMENOS hHMAS KAI DOUS 
TON ARRABWNA TOU PNEUMATOS EN TAIS KARDIAIS hHMWN?
 
Or is this omission of finite verbs simply stylistic and has no different 
semantic force than the same sentence would if it had finite verbs?


Eric S. Weiss


		
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