[B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Feb 22 14:22:44 EST 2005
At 4:22 PM +0100 2/22/05, A. Dirkzwager wrote:
>Eric,
>
>I think the question cannot be answered only from the Greek point of view.
>As Paul was a Jew we have to count with Semitic patterns in his Greek. In
>Semitic languages there is no verb "to be" with a predicate.
>For the rest it will be in my opinion a question of (subjective)
>appreciation of the stilistic force of sentences like TALAIPWROS EGW
>ANQRWPOS.
Well, subjective it may be, but in my opinion the clauses will more likely
be emphatic when the copula IS expressed than when they are omitted, as is
the more standard construction.
>----- Oorspronkelijk bericht -----
>Van: "Eric Weiss" <papaweiss1 at yahoo.com>
>Aan: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
>Verzonden: dinsdag 22 februari 2005 14:12
>Onderwerp: [B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
>
>
>> Is there greater semantic force to verbless sentences than if the
>sentences
>> were to have the understood verb? I'm thinking offhand of Romans 7:24a -
>> TALAIPWROS EGW ANQRWPOS and Romans 8:1 OUDEN ARA
>> KATAKRIMA TOIS EN CRISTWi IHSOU.
>>
>> How about sentences that have adjectival participles but no finite verbs -
>e.g.,
>> 2 Cor. 1:21 - hO DE BEBAIWN hHMAS SUN hUMIN EIS CRISTON KAI
>> KRISAS hHMAS QEOS, hO KAI SFRAGISAMENOS hHMAS KAI DOUS
>> TON ARRABWNA TOU PNEUMATOS EN TAIS KARDIAIS hHMWN?
>>
>> Or is this omission of finite verbs simply stylistic and has no different
>> semantic force than the same sentence would if it had finite verbs?
>>
>>
>> Eric S. Weiss
>>
>>
>>
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>
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--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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