[B-Greek] John 3:3 and John 21:16 KTL
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Feb 26 05:28:33 EST 2005
Forwarded for: "Peter Clark" <peter_clark47 at hotmail.com>
In the two verses above there seems to be a repetition of ideas: APEKRIQH
hO IHSOUS KAI EIPEN AUTWi (3:3) AND LEGEI AUTiW PALIN DEUTERON (21:16). It
has been suggested that the first example can be accounted for by it being
a Semitism which was retained in the LXX and thus found its way into the
Gospels and Acts. It is apparently unknown in Classical Greek. The second
example is a little harder to explain. Why PALIN DEUTERON and not just
PALIN or DEUTERON?
This issue arose in my Greek class last week and I'd like some suggestions!
Thanks
Peter Clark
Cardiff, UK
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