[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15"
cwconrad at ioa.com
cwconrad at ioa.com
Sun Jan 2 08:57:14 EST 2005
At 2:18 AM -0600 1/2/05, Charles Rempel wrote:
>Cirk,
>
>Points well taken!
Er, taken where?
>However, Dr. Conrad, or one of his disciples, needs to make application of
>the MP1/MP2 hypotheses in Paul's and Luke's usage in the passaages cited.
>Why do they go from MP1 to MP2 within the same chapter?
I have offered an accounting in the 7 pages devoted to usage of MP1 and MP2 forms of GINOMAI in the GNT of the readily available PDF file that I have referenced previously. There is no real semantic difference in these two morphoparadigms: either can be used in a middle sense or in a passive sense. As for why an author should use both forms--even within the same chapter, that's explicable in at least two ways: (1) one of the forms is often within a text cited from the LXX; (2) in periods when a language is in flux, authors quite commonly alternate between alternative forms of common expressions that are equivalent in meaning, e.g. in American English: "a couple" = "a pair"; "soused" = "drunk" = "intoxicated"; in terms of equivalent morphoparadigms: "treaded" and "trod"--where the archaizing "strong" TROD tends to be used more formally, the more current "treaded" more colloquially.
Let's take up an instance of EGENOMHN and EGENHQHN where the meaning of the expressions in which they are found appears to be to all intents and purposes identical:
Eph 3:6-7 ... TOU EUAGGELIOU, hOU EGENHQHN DIAKONOS KATA THN DWREAN THS CARITOS TOU QEOU ...
Col. 1:23 ... TOU EUAGGELIOU ... hOU EGENOMHN EGW PAULOS DIAKONOS ...
Col. 1:24-5 ... hH EKKLHSIA, hHS EGENOMHN EGW DIAKONOS KATA THN OIKONOMIAN TOU QEOU THN DOQEISAN MOI ...
Are we to say that in Eph 3:6-7 EGENHQHN DIAKONOS means "I was made (by God) a servant" but that in Col. 1-23-5 the two expressions EGENOMHN DIAKONOS bear a different semantic "voice" and mean something like "I came to be (of my own accord) a servant"?
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
http:www.ioa.com/~cwconrad
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