[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15

Charles Rempel CharlesR at mygalaxyexpress.com
Mon Jan 3 10:39:04 EST 2005



Question.  So now what do you have to say?  I think that rather than "be
made" this is simply "become."

george
gfsomsel
___________


George,

As I reflected further on your question I realized that I have a tendency to
read what is said in the Greek and not run it through the English process of
thought. We have a tendency to think that everyone else thinks like we do. I
noticed that when I worked with missionaries in Belarus. The fact is that
the Greeks did not think like we do and it is our job as grammarians to
enter into the Greek thought, not force our English grammatical thought on
the text. If I understand the MP1/MP2 argument as applied to Titus 3:7 it is
that the subject is "we" and since the subject is "we" we are the actors who
make ourselves heirs. If the middle voice were used that might be the
thought. However, since the middle voice was not used, and Peter did use the
middle voice of GINOMAI in other places, the Greek thought that is
represented is that, while we are the ones who become heirs, we are not the
ones who make ourselves heirs. I read this in the Greek and it seemed
obvious to me so I made no other comments besides suggesting that this is
the most passive of the verses so far.

CDR




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