[B-Greek] "eis" in Acts 2:38
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Jan 7 16:13:39 EST 2005
At 12:18 PM -0800 1/7/05, Jerry Fite wrote:
>I am a member of the church of Christ and have been studying the use of
>the Greek preposition "EIS", in the New Testament. I am purposefully
>requesting answers from those with whom I probably have doctrinal
>differences regarding Acts 2:38. I want to ask you some questions in
>hope that answers will be given in light of scholarship in the Greek
>language , not necessarily in light of any doctrinal belief.
It would be useful to have the two texts in question in view:
Mt 26:28 TOUTO GAR ESTIN TO hAIMA MOU THS DIAQHKHS TO PERI POLLWN
EKCUNNOMENON EIS AFESIN hAMARTIWN.
Acts 2:38 PETROS DE PROS AUTOUS: METANOHSATE, [FHSIN] KAI BAPTISQHTW
hEKASTOS hUMWN EPI TWi ONOMATI IHSOU CRISTOU EIS AFESIN TWN hAMARTIWN hUMWN
KAI LHMYESQE THN DWREAN TOU hAGIOU PNEUMATOS
>(1). Is your understanding of the use of "eis" in Acts 2:38 colored by
>the use of the same word and expression in Matt. 26:28?
My understanding isn't so colored. I would understand each the phrase EIS
AFESIN hAMARTIWN (POLLWN/hUMWN) in each text within its own context.
>(2) Is "repentance" in Acts 2:38, because of the copulative conjunction
>"and", governed by the expression, "for the remission of sins"?
I would understand each imperative verb here, each with its own modifiers,
as a distinct unit within the larger group:
METANOHSATE
BAPTISQHTW hEKASTOS hUMWN EPI TWi ONOMATI I.C. EIS AFESIN TWN hAMARTIWN
hUMWN
LHMYESQE THN DWREAN TOU hAGIOU PNEUMATOS
>(3).Can "eis" be properly translated "because of" in either Acts 2:38 or
>Matt. 26:28?
No, I can see no justification; I would expect such a notion to be
expressed by a preposition DIA or postposition hENEKA or something similar.
EIS with an accusative most commonly means "into" or "onto" and then by
extension "to" or "until." It is commonly used with verbal nouns as here
with AFESIS in the sense of "for" or "for the purpose of." It can under the
right circumstances mean "with respect to"--i.e. the preposition simply
highlights an accusative of specification.
>(4). Is "eis" used in a retrospective way, as "looking back" , instead of
>"looking forward" anywhere in the New Testament?
I'd like to see any evidence for such a claim; I don't believe it is so.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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