[B-Greek] "eis" in Acts 2:38

Charles Rempel CharlesR at mygalaxyexpress.com
Sat Jan 8 01:35:02 EST 2005


Charles Rempel wrote:

> This text clearly reads that one should "be baptized ... into the
> forgiveness of sins." Using the illustration of the arrow going into
> a circle from Dana and Mantey, the arrow would be the process
> of Baptizw and the circle would be the forgiveness of sins. Baptism
> is the process of moving the individual from the unbaptized state
> to the baptized state. The Acts passage defines one aspect of the
> baptized state to be the forgiveness of sins. The unbaptized state
> is the lack of forgiveness of sins.

Given the verse examples I included in my earlier post:

Matt 3:11 - EGW MEN hUMAS BAPTIZW EN hUDATI EIS METANOIAN
Matt 28:19 - BAPTIZONTES AUTOUS EIS TO ONOMA TOU PATROS ...
Matt 26:28 - TO PERI POLLWN EKCUNNOMENON EIS AFESIN
hAMARTIWN
Mark 1:4-5 - KHRUSSWN BAPTISMA METANOIAS EIS AFESIN
hAMARTIWN (also Luke 3:3) ... KAI EBAPTIZONTO hUP' AUTOU EN
TWi IORDANHi POTAMWi EXOMOLOGOUMENOI TAS hAMARTIAS
AUTWN (also Matt 3:6)
Acts 2:38 - METANOHSATE, [FHSIN,] KAI BAPTISQHTW hEKASTOS
hUMWN EPI TWi ONOMATI IHSOU CRISTOU EIS AFESIN TWN
hAMARTIWN hUMWN

would you then say that, per Matt 3:11, baptism is the process of
moving the individual from the unrepentant state to the repentant state,
and per Matt 26:28, baptism is the process of moving the individual from
non-Father/Son/Holy Spirit state to the Father/Son/Holy Spirit state?


Eric S. Weiss


To be academically honest, if I remember what Dr. Dale said I must note that
he excluded Matthew from his formulation. However, with Matthew 3:11 I would
agree that this is the correct thought. I do not see Matthew 26:28 as
baptism, therefore the comments would not apply. With reference to Matthew
28:19 the answer is yes.

Charles




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