[B-Greek] "Eis" Acts 2:38
Jerry Fite
jbfite at flash.net
Wed Jan 12 18:08:13 EST 2005
Since I sent in the questions concerning the preposition "eis" in Acts 2:38 in the latest round of inquiry regarding this passage, I want to thank all participants for your thoughtful input. It has helped greatly. I appreciate the heads-up by Dr. Conrad regarding a discussion from a few years back. That too was instructive.
The arrow and circle illustration is helpful, and when applied is accurate in my investigations.
When A.T. Robertson uses Matt. 10:41 as an occurance when "eis" " ...cannot be purpose or aim but basis or ground'' ( Word Pictures Vol. III, p. 35), I still can see purpose or aim as one acts but whose actions points towards a certain destination as basis or ground for one's actions. (eis onoma prophetou, dikaiou, mathetou - a basis due to their relationship with the Lord. Is this one of those "right circumstances" when "with respect to" is the intended meaning and the preposition "eis" "highlights an accusative of specification" as Dr. Conrad pointed out in a earlier post?
I find it hard to follow the logic of A.T. Robertson when he writes, "So, I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received" (Ibid, p. 36). Where in the context do we have the hearers already repenting? We have the audience pricked in the heart in their belief of the truth of Peter's message, and asking what shall we do? Between verse 37and 38 when did they repent and already have the forgiveness of sins?
I do not see why the grammarian and interpreter cannot be in complete harmony with the context of Luke's record and faithfully convey Peter's meaning by interpreting "eis aphesin ton hamartion" as "unto the remission of sins" - for the purpose of receiving the remission of sins on the basis of the name of Christ. The only reason would be one's theological bias in coming to the passage. I realize I can be guilty of the same, but am trying to see if the basis of my belief contradicts the actual Greek text.
I believe Charles D Rempel says it well when answering my question regarding the "for the remission of sins" statements in Matt. 26:28 and Acts 2:38 as properly being translated "because of" - and he says, "only with theological eisegesis".
Thanks again for all of the list's expertise.
Sincerely,
Jerry Fite
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list