[B-Greek] "Eis" Acts 2:38

Charles Rempel CharlesR at mygalaxyexpress.com
Thu Jan 13 09:40:13 EST 2005


By my assertion I did not say that I did not make error. I just stated a
principle which I believe to be true. Because I fail to live up to a
principle, does not make the principle false. I readily recognize that each
of us has a frame of reference and personal understandings. I very sincerely
believe that the "causal" EIS comes from these theological biases. It is
agreed that every Grammar and Lexicon was written from a biased viewpoint.
Even the Bible was written from a biased viewpoint, God's. And that is why
we spend so much time examining it for what it actually says. And that is
why we need B-Greek, so that we are challenged in those areas where we might
have let personal prejudices affect our judgment.

Charles

-----Original Message-----
From: Minton, Ron [mailto:rminton at bible.edu]
Sent: Thursday, January 13, 2005 7:38 AM
To: Charles Rempel; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: RE: [B-Greek] "Eis" Acts 2:38


Just to set the record straight - ain't so.  You may call it doctrinal
considerations, analogy of faith, theological eisegesis, political
correctness, or some other name, but you interpret such important
theological passages in Greek grammar every bit as subjectively as ATR.
Every one of us comes to the table with a frame of reference that defines
who we are, and you WILL make decisions based on who you are.  It is the
same in biblical translation, there has never been an unbiased translator.
Now I realize that those of us on the B-G list are "above such," so go ahead
and send the rebuttals so we can all get a good laugh.  I have read articles
and post on Acts 2:38, and no view seems to be more subjective that the
others.
Ron Minton
-----Original Message-----
From: Charles Rempel [mailto:CharlesR at mygalaxyexpress.com]
Sent: Wednesday, January 12, 2005 10:51 PM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: RE: [B-Greek] "Eis" Acts 2:38

I believe  Charles D Rempel says it well when answering my question
regarding the "for the remission of sins" statements in Matt. 26:28 and Acts
2:38 as properly being translated "because of" - and he says, "only with
theological eisegesis".
Jerry Fite

Just to set the record straight. I do not believe it is ever proper to use
theological eisegesis in interpretation of scripture.
Charles




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