[B-Greek] "eis" Acts 2:38

Jerry Fite jbfite at flash.net
Thu Jan 13 17:13:03 EST 2005


I asked the questions originally concerning the preposition "eis" in Acts 2:38  in order to gain insight from those knowledgeable in New Testament Greek in how they interpret the verse.  I believe I have a better understanding now.  I thank all for the input, especially from those who disagree with me doctrinally. 
 
Charles had a problem with the following statement I made: 
 
I believe  Charles D Rempel says it well when answering my question 
regarding the "for the remission of sins" statements in Matt. 26:28 and 
Acts 2:38 as properly being translated "because of" - and he says, "only 
with theological eisegesis".  
 
I was not saying Charles thought it was proper to use theological eisegesis, but I thought he had put it well when saying that by "only with theological eisegesis" could one say that "eis" should be understood "because of".  
 
I still would like someone to examine my remarks concerning A. T. Robertson and see If I am on the right track in understanding his remarks  concerning "eis" in Acts 2:38 in Word Pictures, and His Grammar.  
 
Thanks again for all the help. 
 
Sincerely,
Jerry Fite





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